Settlement with a cash payment to reflect the imbalance in their patent positions

Of the text --a cash payment to reflect the imbalance in their patent positions --, does one normalize merely to "number" of patents, number of claims, or to the monetized "value" of the claims?

From a piece in the WSJ titled Nokia Deploys Its Patent Armory :

"Since Nokia has more than twice as many patents as Apple, it is only logical to expect that if the companies reach a settlement agreement, it might be accompanied by a payment by Apple to Nokia," [Poltorak] said.